CSIR NET Syllabus Life Science - 2018-2019 StudyChaCha

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Old June 19th, 2012, 01:02 PM
Artip patel
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Default CSIR NET Syllabus Life Science

I am looking for the syllabus of Council of Scientific and Industrial Research NET Life Science here but yet I can find so please can some buddy give me the syllabus of life science and tell me from where I can download the syllabus?
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Old June 19th, 2012, 06:16 PM
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Default Re: CSIR NET Syllabus Life Science

You are looking for CSIR NET Syllabus for Life Science….. here I have uploaded the file for the syllabus for you. Just click on the attachment to get it.


1. Cell Biology: Structure and function of cells and intracellular organelles (of both prokaryotes and eukaryotes), mechanism of cell division (including mitosis and meiosis) cell differentiation: Cell-cell interaction malignant growth, immune response: Dosage compensation and mechanism of sex determination

2. Biochemistry: Structure of atoms, molecules and chemical bonds; principles of physical chemistry: Thermodynamics, Kinetics, dissociation and association constants; Nucleic acid structure, genetic code, replication, transcription and translation: Structure, function and metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids and proteins; Enzymes and coenzyme; Respiration and photosynthesis.

3. Physiology: Response to stress: 'Active transport across membrane ; Plant and animal hormones: Nutrition (including vitamins); Reproduction in plants, microbes and animals.

4. Genetics: Principles of Mendelian inheritance, chromosome 'Structure and-function; Gene Structure and regulation of gene expression: Linkage and genetic mapping; Extrachromosomal inheritance (episomes, mitochondria and chloroplasts); Mutation: DNA damage and repair, chromosome aberration: Transposons; Sex-linked inheritance and genetic disorders; Somatic cell genetics; Genome organization (in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes).

5. Evolutionary Biology: Origin of life (including aspects of prebiotic environment and molecular evolution); Concepts of evolution; Theories of organic evolution; Mechanisms of speciation; Hardy Weinberg genetic equilibrium, genetic polymorphism and selection; Origin and evolution of economically important microbes, plants and animals.

6. Environmental Biology: Concept and dynamics or ecosystem, components, food chain and energy flow, productivity and biogeochemical cycles; Types of ecosystems, Population ecology and biological control;Community structure and organisation;Environmental pollutionSustainable development; Economic importance of microbes, plants and animals

7. Biodiversity and Taxonomy: Species concept; Biological nomenclature theories of biological classification, Structural biochemical and molecular systematic; DNA finger printing, numerical taxonomy, Biodiversity, characterization, generation maintenance and loss; Magnitude and distribution of biodiversity, economic value, wildlife biology, conservation strategies, cryopreservation.

1. Principles of Taxonomy as applied to the systemic and Classification of Plant Kingdom: Taxonomic structure; Biosystematics; Plant geography; Floristic.

2. Patterns of variation in morphology and life history in plants; Broad outlines of classification AND evolutionary trends among algae, fungi, bryophytes and pteridophytes; Principles of palaeobotany; Economic importance of algae, fungi and lichens.

3. Comparative anatomy and developmental morphology of gymnosperms and angiosperms; Histochemical and ultra structural aspects of development; Differentiation and morphogenesis.

4. Androgensis and gynogenesis; Breeding system; Pollination biology; structural and functional aspects of pollen and pistil; Male sterility; Self and inter-specific incompatibility; Fertilization; Embryo and seed development.

5. Plants and civilization; Centre of origin and gene diversity; Botany, utilization, cultivation and improvement of plants of food, drug, fiber and industrial values, Unexploited plants of potential economic value; Plants as a source of renewable energy; Genetic resources and their conservation.

6. Water Relation; Mineral nutrition; Photosynthesis and photorespiration; Nitrogen, Phosphorous and Sulphur metabolism; Stomatal physiology; Source and sink relationship.

7. Physiology and biochemistry and seed dormancy and germination; Hormonal regulation of growth and development; Photo regulation: Growth responses, Physiology of flowering: Senescence.

8. Principles of plant breeding; important conventional methods of breeding self and cross-pollinated and vegetatively propagated crops; Non conventional methods; Polyploidy: Genetic variability; Plant diseases and defensive


9. Principles of taxonomy as applied to the systematics and classification of the animal kingdom; Classification and interrelationship amongst the major invertebrate phyla; Minor invertebrate phyla, Functional anatomy of the Nonchordates; Larval forms and their evolutionary significance.

10. Classification and comparative anatomy of protochordates and chordates; Origin, evolution and distribution of Chordates groups: Adaptive radiation.

11. Histology of mammalian organ systems, nutrition, digestion and absorption; Circulation (open and closed circular, lymphatic systems, blood composition and function); Muscular contraction and electric organs; Excretion and osmoregulation: Nerve conduction and neurotransmitters; major sense organs and receptors; Homeostatis (neural and hormonal); Bioluminescence; Reproduction.

12. Gametogenesis in animals: Molecular events during fertilization, Cleavage patterns and fate maps, Concepts of determination, competence and induction, totipotency and nuclear transfer experiments: Cell differentiation and differential gene activity: Morphogenetic determinants in egg cytoplasm; Role of maternal contributions in early embryonic development; Genetic regulations of early embryonic development in Drosophila; Homeotic genes.

13. Feeding, learning, social and sexual behavior of animals; Parental care; Circadian rhythms; Mimicry; Migration of fishes and birds; Sociobiology; Physiological adaptation at high altitude

14. .Important human and veterinary parasites (protozoans and helminthes); Life cycle and biology of Plasmodium, Trypanosoma, Ascaris, Wuchereria, Fasciola, Schistosoma and Leishmania; Molecular, cellular and physiological

Basis of host - parasite interactions.

15. Arthropods and vectors of human diseases (mosquitoes, lice, flies and ticks); Mode of transmission of pathogens by vectors,; Chemical, biological and environmental control of anthropoid vectors; Biology and control of chief insect pests of agricultural importance; Plant host-insect interaction, insect pest management; useful insects: Silkworm

16. The law of DNA constancy and C-value paradox; Numerical, and structural changes in chromosomes; Molecular basis of spontaneous and induced mutations and their role in evolution; Environmental mutagenesis and toxicity

Testing; Population genetics.

17. Structure of pro-and eukaryotic cells; membrane structure and function; intracellular compartments, protein sorting, secretory and endocytic pathway; cytoskeleton, nucleus; mitochondria and chloroplast and their genetic organization; cell cycle; structure and organization of chromatin; polytene and lamp brush chromosomes; dosage compensation and sex determination and sex linked inheritance.

18. Interactions between environment and biota; Concept of habitat and ecological niches; Limiting factor; Energy flow, food chain, food web and tropic levels; Ecological pyramids and recycling, biotic community-concept, structure,

Dominance, fluctuation and succession; N.P.C. and S cycles in nature

19. Ecosystem dynamics and management; Stability and complexity of ecosystems; Speciation and extinctions; environmental impact assessment; Principles of conservation; Conservation strategies; sustainable development.

20. Physico-chemical properties of water; Kinds of aquatic habitats (fresh water and marine); Distribution of and impact of environmental factors on the aquatic biota; Productivity, mineral cycles and biodegradation in different aquatic ecosystems; Fish and Fisheries of India with respect to the management of estuarine, coastal water systems and man-made reservoirs; Biology and ecology of reservoirs.

21. Structure, classification, genetics, reproduction and physiology of bacteria and viruses (of bacteria, plants and animals); Mycoplasma, protozoa and yeast (a general accounts).

22. Microbial fermentation; Antibiotics, organic acids and vitamins; Microbes in decomposition and recycling processes; Symbiotic and asymbiotic N2-fixation; Microbiology of water, air, soil and sewage: Microbes as pathological agents in plants, animals and man; General design and applications of a biofermenter, Biofertilizer.

23. Antigen; structure and functions of different classes of Igs; primary and secondary immune response; lymphocytes and accessory cell; humoral and cell mediated immunity; MHC; mechanism of immune response and generation of immunological diversity; genetic control of immune response; effector mechanisms; applications of immunological techniques.

24. Enzyme Kinetics (negative and positive cooperativity); Regulation of enzymatic activity; Active sites; Coenzymes: Activators and inhibitors, isoenzymes, allosteric enzymes; Ribozyme and abzyme.

25. Van der Waal's, electrostatic, hydrogen bonding and hydrophobic interaction; Primary structure and proteins and nucleic acids; Conformation of proteins and polypeptides (secondary, Tertiary, quaternary and domain structure);Reverse turns and Ramachandran plot; Structural polymorphism of DNA, RNA and three dimensional structure of tRNA; Structure of carbohydrates, polysaccharides, glycoproteins and peptido-qlycans: Helix coil transition; Energy terms in biopolymer conformational calculation.

26. Glycolysis and TCA cycle; Glycogen breakdown and synthesis; Gluconeogenesis; Interconversion of hexoses and pentoses; Amino acid metabolism; Coordinated control of metabolism; Biosynthesis of purines and pyrimidines;Oxidation of lipids; Biosynthesis of fatty acids; Triglycerides; Phospholipids; Sterols.

27. Energy metabolism (concept of free energy); Thermodynamic principles in biology; Energy rich bonds; Weak interactions; Coupled reactions and oxidative phosphorylations; Group transfer; Biological energy transducers;Bioenergietics.

28. Fine structure of gene, Eukaryotic genome organization (structure of chromatin, coding and non-coding sequences, and satellite DNA); DNA damage and repair, DNA replication, amplification and rearrangements.

29. Organization of transcriptional units; Mechanism of transcription of prokaryotes and eukaryotes; RNA processing (capping, polyadenylation, splicing, introns and exons); Ribonucleoproteins, structure of mRNA; Genetic code

and protein synthesis.

30. Regulation of gene expression in pro and eukaryotes; Attenuation and antitermination; Operon concept; DNA methylation; Heterochromatization; Transposition; Regulatory sequences and transacting factors; Environmental

regulation of gene expression.

31. Biochemistry and molecular biology of cancer Oncogenes; Chemical carcinogenesis; Genetic and metabolic disorder; Hormonal imbalance ;Drug metabolism and detoxification ;Genetic load and genetic counseling

32. Lysogeny and lytic cycle in bacteriophages; Bacterial transformation; Host cell restriction; Transduction; Complementation; Molecular recombination; DNA ligases;Topoisomerases;Gyrases;Methylases;Nuclease s;Restrictionendonucleases; Plasmids and bacteriophage base vectors for cDNA and genomic libraries.

33. Principles and methods of genetic engineering and Gene targeting; Applications in agriculture, health and industry.

34. Cell and tissue culture in plants and animals; Primary culture; Cell line; Cell clones; Callus cultures; Somaclonal variation; Micropropagation; Somatic embryogenesis; Haploidy; Protoplast fusion and somatic hybridization; Cybrids; Gene transfer\methods in plants and in animals; Transgenic biology; Allopheny; Artificial seeds; Hybridoma technology.

35. Structure and organization of membranes; Glycoconjugates and proteins in membrane systems; Ion transport,Na+/K+ATPase;Molecular basis of signal transduction in bacteria, plants and animals; Model membranes;Liposomes.

36. Principles and application of light phase contrast, fluorescence, scanning and transmission electron microscopy, Cytophotometry and flow cytometry, fixation and staining.

37 .Principles and applications of gel-filtration, ion-exchange and affinity chromatography; Thin layer and gas Chromatography; High pressure liquid (HPLC) chromatography; Electrophoresis and electrofocussing; Ultracentrifugation (velocity and buoyant density).

38. Principles and techniques of nucleic acid hybridization and Cot curves; Sequencing of Proteins and nucleic acids; Southern, Northern and South-Western blotting techniques; Polymerase chain reaction; Methods for measuring nucleic acid and protein interactions.

39. Principles of biophysical methods used for analysis of biopolymer structure, X-ray diffraction, fluorescence,UV, ORD/CD, Visible, NMR and ESR spectroscopy; Hydrodynamic methods; Atomic absorption and plasma emission spectroscopy.

40. Principles and applications of tracer techniques in biology; Radiation dosimetry; Radioactive isotopes and half life of isotopes; Effect of radiation on biological system; Autoradiography; Cerenkov radiation; Liquid scintillation


41. Principles and practice of statistical methods in biological research, samples and populations; Basic statistics average, statistics of dispersion, coefficient of variation; Standard error; Confidence limits; Probability distributions(biomial, Poisson and normal; Tests of statistical significance; Simple correlation of regression; Analysis of variance.
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Last edited by Vinodt; February 11th, 2014 at 11:17 AM.
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Old February 18th, 2014, 11:27 AM
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Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR) holds Joint CSIR-UGC NET twice a year, usually in the month of June & December.

CSIR NET Life Science Syllabus:
1. Molecules And Their Interaction Relavent To Biology
A. Structure of atoms, molecules and chemical bonds.
B. Composition, structure and function of biomolecules (carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids and vitamins).
C. Stablizing interactions (Van der Waals, electrostatic, hydrogen bonding, hydrophobic interaction, etc.).
D. Principles of biophysical chemistry (pH, buffer, reaction kinetics, thermodynamics, colligative properties).
E. Bioenergetics, glycolysis, oxidative phosphorylation, coupled reaction, group transfer, biological energy transducers.
F. Principles of catalysis, enzymes and enzyme kinetics, enzyme regulation, mechanism of enzyme catalysis, isozymes.
G. Conformation of proteins (Ramachandran plot, secondary, tertiary and quaternary structure; domains; motif and folds).
H. Conformation of nucleic acids (A-, B-, Z-,DNA), t-RNA, micro-RNA).
I. Stability of protein and nucleic acid structures.
J. Metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, amino acids, nucleotides and vitamins.

2. Cellular Organization
A. Membrane structure and function: Structure of model membrane, lipid bilayer and membrane protein diffusion, osmosis, ion channels, active transport, ion pumps, mechanism of sorting and regulation of intracellular transport, electrical properties of membranes.
B. Structural organization and function of intracellular organelles: Cell wall, nucleus, mitochondria, Golgi bodies, lysosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, peroxisomes, plastids, vacuoles, chloroplast, structure & function of cytoskeleton and its role in motility.
C. Organization of genes and chromosomes: Operon, interrupted genes, gene families, structure of chromatin and chromosomes, unique and repetitive DNA, heterochromatin, euchromatin, transposons.
D. Cell division and cell cycle: Mitosis and meiosis, their regulation, steps in cell cycle, and control of cell cycle.
E. Microbial Physiology: Growth, yield and characteristics, strategies of cell division, stress response.

3. Fundamental Processes
A. DNA replication, repair and recombination: Unit of replication, enzymes involved, replication origin and replication fork, fidelity of replication, extrachromosomal replicons, DNA damage and repair mechanisms.
B. RNA synthesis and processing: Transcription factors and machinery, formation of initiation complex, transcription activators and repressors, RNA polymerases, capping, elongation and termination, RNA processing, RNA editing, splicing, polyadenylation, structure and function of different types of RNA, RNA transport.
C. Protein synthesis and processing: Ribosome, formation of initiation complex, initiation factors and their regulation, elongation and elongation factors, termination, genetic code, aminoacylation of tRNA, tRNA-identity, aminoacyl tRNA synthetase, translational proof-reading, translational inhibitors, post- translational modification of proteins.
D. Control of gene expression at transcription and translation level: Regulation of phages, viruses, prokaryotic and eukaryotic gene expression, role of chromatin in regulating gene expression and gene silencing.

4. Cell Communication And Cell Signaling
A. Host parasite interaction: Recognition and entry processes of different pathogens like bacteria, viruses into animal and plant host cells, alteration of host cell behavior by pathogens, virus-induced cell transformation, pathogen-induced diseases in animals and plants, cell-cell fusion in both normal and abnormal cells.
B. Cell signaling: Hormones and their receptors, cell surface receptor, signaling through G-protein coupled receptors, signal transduction pathways, second messengers, regulation of signaling pathways, bacterial and plant two-component signaling systems, bacterial chemotaxis and quorum sensing.
C. Cellular communication: Regulation of hematopoiesis, general principles of cell communication, cell adhesion and roles of different adhesion molecules, gap junctions, extracellular matrix, integrins, neurotransmission and its regulation.
D. Cancer: Genetic rearrangements in progenitor cells, oncogenes, tumor suppressor genes, cancer and the cell cycle, virus-induced cancer, metastasis, interaction of cancer cells with normal cells, apoptosis, therapeutic interventions of uncontrolled cell growth.

A) Basic concepts of development : Potency, commitment, specification, induction, competence, determination and
differentiation; morphogenetic gradients; cell fate and cell lineages; stem cells; genomic equivalence and the
cytoplasmic determinants; imprinting; mutants and transgenics in analysis of development

B) Gametogenesis, fertilization and early development: Production of gametes, cell surface molecules in spermegg
recognition in animals; embryo sac development and double fertilization in plants; zygote formation, cleavage,
blastula formation, embryonic fields, gastrulation and formation of germ layers in animals; embryogenesis,
establishment of symmetry in plants; seed formation and germination.

C) Morphogenesis and organogenesis in animals : Cell aggregation and differentiation in Dictyostelium; axes and
pattern formation in Drosophila, amphibia and chick; organogenesis – vulva formation in Caenorhabditis elegans,
eye lens induction, limb development and regeneration in vertebrates; differentiation of neurons, post embryonic

development- larval formation, metamorphosis; environmental regulation of normal development; sex determination.

D) Morphogenesis and organogenesis in plants: Organization of shoot and root apical meristem; shoot and root
development; leaf development and phyllotaxy; transition to flowering, floral meristems and floral development in
Arabidopsis and Antirrhinum

E) Programmed cell death, aging and senescence

A) Photosynthesis - Light harvesting complexes; mechanisms of electron transport; photoprotective mechanisms;
CO2 fixation-C3, C4 and CAM pathways.

B) Respiration and photorespiration – Citric acid cycle; plant mitochondrial electron transport and ATP synthesis;
alternate oxidase; photorespiratory pathway.

C) Nitrogen metabolism - Nitrate and ammonium assimilation; amino acid biosynthesis.

D) Plant hormones – Biosynthesis, storage, breakdown and transport; physiological effects and mechanisms of

E) Sensory photobiology – Structure, function and mechanisms of action of phytochromes, cryptochromes and
phototropins; stomatal movement; photoperiodism and biological clocks.

F) Solute transport and photoassimilate translocation – uptake, transport and translocation of water, ions, solutes
and macromolecules from soil, through cells, across membranes, through xylem and phloem; transpiration;
mechanisms of loading and unloading of photoassimilates.

G) Secondary metabolites – Biosynthesis of terpenes, phenols and nitrogenous compounds and their roles.

H) Stress physiology – Responses of plants to biotic (pathogen and insects) and abiotic (water, temperature and
salt) stresses.

A) Blood and circulation – Blood corpuscles, haemopoiesis and formed elements, plasma function, blood volume,
blood volume regulation, blood groups, haemoglobin, immunity, haemostasis.

B) Cardiovascular System: Comparative anatomy of heart structure, myogenic heart, specialized tissue, ECG – its
principle and significance, cardiac cycle, heart as a pump, blood pressure, neural and chemical regulation of all

C) Respiratory system – Comparison of respiration in different species, anatomical considerations, transport of
gases, exchange of gases, waste elimination, neural and chemical regulation of respiration.
D) Nervous system – Neurons, action potential, gross neuroanatomy of the brain and spinal cord, central and
peripheral nervous system, neural control of muscle tone and posture.

E) Sense organs – Vision, hearing and tactile response.

F) Excretory system – Comparative physiology of excretion, kidney, urine formation, urine concentration, waste
elimination, micturition, regulation of water balance, blood volume, blood pressure, electrolyte balance, acid-base

G) Thermoregulation – Comfort zone, body temperature – physical, chemical, neural regulation, acclimatization.

H) Stress and adaptation
I) Digestive system – Digestion, absorption, energy balance, BMR.

J) Endocrinology and reproduction – Endocrine glands, basic mechanism of hormone action, hormones and
diseases; reproductive processes, gametogenesis, ovulation, neuroendocrine regulation

A) Mendelian principles : Dominance, segregation, independent assortment.

B) Concept of gene : Allele, multiple alleles, pseudoallele, complementation tests

C) Extensions of Mendelian principles: Codominance, incomplete dominance, gene interactions, pleiotropy, genomic

imprinting, penetrance and expressivity, phenocopy, linkage and crossing over, sex linkage, sex limited and sex

influenced characters.
D) Gene mapping methods : Linkage maps, tetrad analysis, mapping with molecular markers, mapping by using
somatic cell hybrids, development of mapping population in plants.

E) Extra chromosomal inheritance: Inheritance of Mitochondrial and chloroplast genes, maternal inheritance.

F) Microbial genetics: Methods of genetic transfers–transformation,conjugation, transduction and sex-duction,
mapping genes by interrupted mating, fine structure analysis of genes.
G) Human genetics : Pedigree analysis, lod score for linkage testing, karyotypes, genetic disorders.
H) Quantitative genetics : Polygenic inheritance, heritability and its measurements, QTL mapping.

I) Mutation : Types, causes and detection, mutant types – lethal, conditional, biochemica loss of function,
gain of
function, germinal verses somatic mutants, insertional mutagenesis.

J) Structural and numerical alterations of chromosomes : Deletion, duplication, inversion, translocation, ploidy and
their genetic implications.

K) Recombination : Homologous and non-homologous recombination including transposition.

A) Principles & methods of taxonomy: Concepts of species and hierarchical taxa, biological nomenclature, classical
& quantititative methods of taxonomy of plants, animals and microorganisms.

B) Levels of structural organization: Unicellular, colonial and multicellular forms. Levels of organization of tissues,
organs & systems. Comparative anatomy, adaptive radiation, adaptive modifications.

C) Outline classification of plants, animals & microorganisms: Important criteria used for classification in each
taxon. Classification of plants, animals and microorganisms. Evolutionary relationships among taxa.

D) Natural history of Indian subcontinent: Major habitat types of the subcontinent, geographic origins and migrations
of species. Comman Indian mammals, birds. Seasonality and phenology of the subcontinent.

E) Organisms of health & agricultural importance: Common parasites and pathogens of humans, domestic animals
and crops.
F) Organisms of conservation concern: Rare, endangered species. Conservation strategies.

The Environment: Physical environment; biotic environment; biotic and abiotic interactions.
Habitat and Niche: Concept of habitat and niche; niche width and overlap; fundamental and realized niche; resource
partitioning; character displacement.

Population Ecology: Characteristics of a population; population growth curves; population regulation; life history strategies
(r and K selection); concept of metapopulation – demes and dispersal, interdemic extinctions, age structured populations.

Species Interactions: Types of interactions, interspecific competition, herbivory, carnivory, pollination, symbiosis.

Community Ecology: Nature of communities; community structure and attributes; levels of species diversity and its
measurement; edges and ecotones.

Ecological Succession: Types; mechanisms; changes involved in succession; concept of climax.

Ecosystem Ecology: Ecosystem structure; ecosystem function; energy flow and mineral cycling (C,N,P); primary production
and decomposition; structure and function of some Indian ecosystems: terrestrial (forest, grassland) and aquatic (fresh
water, marine, eustarine).

Biogeography: Major terrestrial biomes; theory of island biogeography; biogeographical zones of India.

Applied Ecology: Environmental pollution; global environmental change; biodiversity: status, monitoring and documentation;
major drivers of biodiversity change; biodiversity management approaches.
Conservation Biology: Principles of conservation, major approaches to management, Indian

case studies on conservation/management strategy (Project Tiger, Biosphere reserves).

A) Emergence of evolutionary thoughts: Lamarck Darwin–concepts of variation, adaptation, struggle, fitness and
natural selection; Mendelism; Spontaneity of mutations; The evolutionary synthesis.

B) Origin of cells and unicellular evolution: Origin of basic biological molecules; Abiotic synthesis of organic
monomers and polymers; Concept of Oparin and Haldane; Experiement of Miller (1953); The first cell; Evolution of
prokaryotes; Origin of eukaryotic cells; Evolution of unicellular eukaryotes; Anaerobic metabolism, photosynthesis
and aerobic metabolism.

C) Paleontology and Evolutionary History: The evolutionary time scale; Eras, periods and epoch; Major events in the
evolutionary time scale; Origins of unicellular and multi cellular organisms; Major groups of plants and animals;
Stages in primate evolution including Homo.

D) Molecular Evolution: Concepts of neutral evolution, molecular divergence and molecular clocks; Molecular tools in
phylogeny, classification and identification; Protein and nucleotide sequence analysis; origin of new genes and
proteins; Gene duplication and divergence.

E) The Mechanisms: Population genetics – Populations, Gene pool, Gene frequency; Hardy-Weinberg Law; concepts
and rate of change in gene frequency through natural selection, migration and random genetic drift; Adaptive
radiation; Isolating mechanisms; Speciation; Allopatricity and Sympatricity; Convergent evolution; Sexual selection;
Co- evolution.

F) Brain, Behavior and Evolution: Approaches and methods in study of behavior; Proximate and ultimate causation;
Altruism and evolution-Group selection, Kin selection, Reciprocal altruism; Neural basis of learning, memory,
cognition, sleep and arousal; Biological clocks; Development of behavior; Social communication; Social dominance;
Use of space and territoriality; Mating systems, Parental investment and Reproductive success; Parental care;
Aggressive behavior; Habitat selection and optimality in foraging; Migration, orientation and navigation; Domestication
and behavioral changes.

A) Microbial fermentation and production of small and macro molecules.
B) Application of immunological principles, vaccines, diagnostics. Tissue and cell culture methods for plants and
C) Transgenic animals and plants, molecular approaches to diagnosis and strain identification.
D) Genomics and its application to health and agriculture, including gene therapy.
E) Bioresource and uses of biodiversity.
F) Breeding in plants and animals, including marker – assisted selection
G) Bioremediation and phytoremediation
H) Biosensors

A) Molecular Biology and Recombinant DNA methods: Isolation and purification of RNA, DNA (genomic and plasmid)
and proteins, different separation methods. Analysis of RNA, DNA and proteins by one and two dimensional gel
electrophoresis, Isoelectric focusing gels. Molecular cloning of DNA or RNA fragments in bacterial and eukaryotic
systems. Expression of recombinant proteins using bacterial, animal and plant vectors. Isolation of specific nucleic
acid sequences Generation of genomic and cDNA libraries in plasmid, phage, cosmid, BAC and YAC vectors. In

vitro mutagenesis and deletion techniques, gene knock out in bacterial and eukaryotic organisms. Protein sequencing
methods, detection of post translation modification of proteins. DNA sequencing methods, strategies for genome
sequencing. Methods for analysis of gene expression at RNA and protein level, large scale expression, such as
micro array based techniques Isolation, separation and analysis of carbohydrate and lipid molecules RFLP, RAPD
and AFLP techniques.

B) Histochemical and Immunotechniques: Antibody generation, Detection of molecules using ELISA, RIA, western
blot, immunoprecipitation, fluocytometry and immunofluorescence microscopy, detection of molecules in living
cells, in situ localization by techniques such as FISH and GISH.

C) Biophysical Method: Molecular analysis using UV/visible, fluorescence, circular dichroism, NMR and ESR
spectroscopy Molecular structure determination using X-ray diffraction and NMR, Molecular analysis using light
scattering, different types of mass spectrometry and surface plasma resonance methods.

D) Statisitcal Methods: Measures of central tendency and dispersal; probability distributions (Binomial, Poisson and
normal); Sampling distribution; Difference between parametric and non-parametric statistics; Confidence Interval;
Errors; Levels of significance; Regression and Correlation; t-test; Analysis of variance; X2 test;; Basic introduction
to Muetrovariate statistics, etc.

E) Radiolabeling techniques: Detection and measurement of different types of radioisotopes normally used in
biology, incorporation of radioisotopes in biological tissues and cells, molecular imaging of radioactive material,
safety guidelines.

F) Microscopic techniques: Visulization of cells and subcellular components by light microscopy, resolving powers
of different microscopes, microscopy of living cells, scanning and transmission microscopes, different fixation and
staining techniques for EM, freeze-etch and freeze- fracture methods for EM, image processing methods in

G) Electrophysiological methods: Single neuron recording, patch-clamp recording, ECG, Brain activity recording,
lesion and stimulation of brain, pharmacological testing, PET, MRI, fMRI, CAT.

H) Methods in field biology: Methods of estimating population density of animals and plants, ranging patterns through
direct, indirect and remote observations, sampling methods in the study of behavior, habitat characterization:
ground and remote sensing methods.


Single Paper Test having Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) is divided in three parts.

Part 'A'
This part shall carry 20 questions pertaining to General aptitude with emphasis on logical reasoning graphical analysis,
analytical and numerical ability, quantitative comparisons, series formation, puzzles etc. The candidates shall be required to
answer any 15 questions. Each question shall be of two marks. The total marks allocated to this section shall be 30 out of 200.

Part 'B'
This part shall contain 40 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) generally covering the topics given in the syllabus. A candidate shall
be required to answer any 25 questions. Each question shall be of three marks. The total marks allocated to this section shall
be 75 out of 200.

Part 'C'
This part shall contain 60 questions that are designed to test a candidate's knowledge of scientific concepts and/or application
of the scientific concepts. The questions shall be of analytical nature where a candidate is expected to apply the scientific
knowledge to arrive at the solution to the given scientific problem. The questions in this part shall have multiple correct options.
Credit in a question shall be given only on identification of ALL the correct options. No credit shall be allowed in a question if any
incorrect option is marked as correct answer. No partial credit is allowed. A candidate shall be required to answer any 20
questions. Each question shall be of 4.75 marks. The total marks allocated to this section shall be 95 out of 200.
For Part 'A' and 'B' there will be Negative marking @25% for each wrong answer. No Negative marking for Part 'C'.To enable the
candidates to go through the questions, the question paper booklet shall be distributed 15 minutes before the scheduled time
of the exam. The answer sheet (OMR sheet) shall be distributed at the scheduled time of the exam.

Part 'A'
This part shall carry 20 questions pertaining to General aptitude with emphasis on logical reasoning graphical analysis,
analytical and numerical ability, quantitative comparisons, series formation, puzzles etc. The candidates shall be required to
answer any 15 questions. Each question shall be of two marks. The total marks allocated to this section shall be 30 out of 200.

(Common syllabus for Part 'B & C')
UNIT – 1
Analysis: Elementary set theory, finite, countable and uncountable sets, Real number system as a complete ordered field,
Archimedean property, supremum, infimum.
Sequences and series, convergence, limsup, liminf.
Bolzano Weierstrass theorem, Heine Borel theorem.
Continuity, uniform continuity, differentiability, mean value theorem.
Sequences and series of functions, uniform convergence.
Riemann sums and Riemann integral, Improper Integrals.
Monotonic functions, types of discontinuity, functions of bounded variation, Lebesgue measure, Lebesgue integral.
Functions of several variables, directional derivative, partial derivative, derivative as a linear transformation, inverse and implicit
function theorems.
Metric spaces, compactness, connectedness. Normed linear Spaces. Spaces of continuous functions as examples.

Linear Algebra: Vector spaces, subspaces, linear dependence, basis, dimension, algebra of linear transformations.
Algebra of matrices, rank and determinant of matrices, linear equations.
Eigenvalues and eigenvectors, Cayley-Hamilton theorem.
Matrix representation of linear transformations. Change of basis, canonical forms, diagonal forms, triangular forms, Jordan
Inner product spaces, orthonormal basis.
Quadratic forms, reduction and classification of quadratic forms .

UNIT – 2
Complex Analysis: Algebra of complex numbers, the complex plane, polynomials, power series, transcendental functions such
as exponential, trigonometric and hyperbolic functions.
Analytic functions, Cauchy-Riemann equations.
Contour integral, Cauchy's theorem, Cauchy's integral formula, Liouville's theorem, Maximum modulus principle, Schwarz
lemma, Open mapping theorem.
Taylor series, Laurent series, calculus of residues.
Conformal mappings, Mobius transformations.

Algebra: Permutations, combinations, pigeon-hole principle, inclusion-exclusion principle, derangements.
Fundamental theorem of arithmetic, divisibility in Z, congruences, Chinese Remainder Theorem, Euler's Ø- function, primitive
Groups, subgroups, normal subgroups, quotient groups, homomorphisms, cyclic groups, permutation groups, Cayley's theorem,
class equations, Sylow theorems.
Rings, ideals, prime and maximal ideals, quotient rings, unique factorization domain, principal ideal domain, Euclidean domain.
Polynomial rings and irreducibility criteria.
Fields, finite fields, field extensions, Galois Theory.

Topology: basis, dense sets, subspace and product topology, separation axioms, connectedness and compactness.

UNIT – 3
Ordinary Differential Equations (ODEs): Existence and uniqueness of solutions of initial value problems for first order ordinary
differential equations, singular solutions of first order ODEs, system of first order ODEs.
General theory of homogenous and non-homogeneous linear ODEs, variation of parameters, Sturm-Liouville boundary value
problem, Green's function.

Partial Differential Equations (PDEs): Lagrange and Charpit methods for solving first order PDEs, Cauchy problem for first order
Classification of second order PDEs, General solution of higher order PDEs with constant coefficients, Method of separation of
variables for Laplace, Heat and Wave equations.

Numerical Analysis: Numerical solutions of algebraic equations, Method of iteration and Newton-Raphson method, Rate of
convergence, Solution of systems of linear algebraic equations using Gauss elimination and Gauss-Seidel methods, Finite
differences, Lagrange, Hermite and spline interpolation, Numerical differentiation and integration, Numerical solutions of ODEs
using Picard, Euler, modified Euler and Runge-Kutta methods.

Calculus of Variations: Variation of a functional, Euler-Lagrange equation, Necessary and sufficient conditions for extrema.
Variational methods for boundary value problems in ordinary and partial differential equations.

Linear Integral Equations: Linear integral equation of the first and second kind of Fredholm and Volterra type, Solutions with
separable kernels. Characteristic numbers and eigenfunctions, resolvent kernel.

Classical Mechanics: Generalized coordinates, Lagrange's equations, Hamilton's canonical equations, Hamilton's principle
and principle of least action, Two-dimensional motion of rigid bodies, Euler's dynamical equations for the motion of a rigid body
about an axis, theory of small oscillations.

UNIT – 4
Descriptive statistics, exploratory data analysis
Sample space, discrete probability, independent events, Bayes theorem. Random variables and distribution functions (univariate
and multivariate); expectation and moments. Independent random variables, marginal and conditional distributions. Characteristic

functions. Probability inequalities (Tchebyshef, Markov, Jensen). Modes of convergence, weak and strong laws of large numbers,
Central Limit theorems (i.i.d. case).
Markov chains with finite and countable state space, classification of states, limiting behaviour of n-step transition probabilities,
stationary distribution, Poisson and birth-and-death processes.
Standard discrete and continuous univariate distributions. sampling distributions, standard errors and asymptotic distributions,
distribution of order statistics and range.
Methods of estimation, properties of estimators, confidence intervals. Tests of hypotheses: most powerful and uniformly most
powerful tests, likelihood ratio tests. Analysis of discrete data and chi-square test of goodness of fit. Large sample tests.
Simple nonparametric tests for one and two sample problems, rank correlation and test for independence. Elementary Bayesian
Gauss-Markov models, estimability of parameters, best linear unbiased estimators, confidence intervals, tests for linear
hypotheses. Analysis of variance and covariance. Fixed, random and mixed effects models. Simple and multiple linear regression.
Elementary regression diagnostics. Logistic regression.
Multivariate normal distribution, Wishart distribution and their properties. Distribution of quadratic forms. Inference for parameters,
partial and multiple correlation coefficients and related tests. Data reduction techniques: Principle component analysis,
Discriminant analysis, Cluster analysis, Canonical correlation.
Simple random sampling, stratified sampling and systematic sampling. Probability proportional to size sampling. Ratio and
regression methods.
Completely randomized designs, randomized block designs and Latin-square designs. Connectedness and orthogonality of
block designs, BIBD. 2K factorial experiments: confounding and construction.
Hazard function and failure rates, censoring and life testing, series and parallel systems.
Linear programming problem, simplex methods, duality. Elementary queuing and inventory models. Steady-state solutions of
Markovian queuing models: M/M/1, M/M/1 with limited waiting space, M/M/C, M/M/C with limited waiting space,
All students are expected to answer questions from Unit-1. Mathematics students are expected to answer additional questions
from Unit-II and III. Statistics students are expected to answer additional questions from Unit-IV.


Single Paper Test having Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) is divided in three parts.

Part 'A'
This part shall carry 20 questions pertaining to General aptitude with emphasis on logical reasoning graphical analysis,
analytical and numerical ability, quantitative comparisons, series formation, puzzles etc. The candidates shall be required to
answer any 15 questions. Each question shall be of two marks. The total marks allocated to this section shall be 30 out of 200.

Part 'B'
This part shall contain 25 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) generally covering the topics given in the Part 'B' of syllabus.
candidates are required to answer any 20 questions. Each question shall be of 3.5 Marks. The total marks allocated to this
section shall be 70 out of 200
Part 'C'
This part shall contain 30 questions from Part 'C' & ‘B’ of the syllabus that are designed to test a candidate's knowledge of
scientific concepts and/or application of the scientific concepts. The questions shall be of analytical nature where a candidate is
expected to apply the scientific knowledge to arrive at the solution to the given scientific problem. A candidate shall be required
to answer any 20 questions. Each question shall be of 5 Marks. The total marks allocated to this section shall be 100 out of 200.
There will be negative marking @25% for each wrong answer. To enable the candidates to go through the questions, the
question paper booklet shall be distributed 15 minutes before the scheduled time of the exam. The answer sheet (OMR sheet)
shall be distributed at the scheduled time of the exam.

Part 'A'
This part shall carry 20 questions pertaining to General aptitude with emphasis on logical reasoning graphical analysis,
analytical and numerical ability, quantitative comparisons, series formation, puzzles etc. The candidates shall be required to
answer any 15 questions. Each question shall be of two marks. The total marks allocated to this section shall be 30 out of 200.

For the detailed syllabus , here i am giving the attachment
Attached Files
File Type: pdf CSIR NET Life Science Syllabus.pdf (434.8 KB, 114 views)
Answered By StudyChaCha Member
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Old February 24th, 2014, 04:44 PM
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Default Re: CSIR NET Syllabus Life Science

I am looking to appear in the CSIR NET Life Science Exam. So will you provide some question papers of CSIR NET Life Science Exam?
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Old February 24th, 2014, 05:13 PM
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Join Date: Jun 2011
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Default Re: CSIR NET Syllabus Life Science

As you want to get some question papers of CSIR NET Life Science Exam, so here I am providing the following question papers:

CSIR NET Life Science Exam Question Paper Dec 2012

1. A granite block of 2 m x 5 m x 3 m size is cut into 5 cm thick

slabs of 2 m x 5 m size. These slabs are laid over a 2 m wide

pavement. What is the length of the pavement that can be

3. What is next number in this “see and tell” sequence?

4. A vertical pole of length a stands at the centre of a horizontal

regular hexagon ground of side a. A rope that is fixed taut in

between a vertex on the ground and to tip of the pole has a

5. A peacock perched on the top of a 12 m high tree spots a

snake moving towards its hole at the base of the tree from a

distance equal to thrice the height of the tree. The peacock flies

towards the snake in a straight line and they both move at the

same speed. At what distance from the base of the tree will the

6. The cities of a country are connected by intercity roads. If a

city is directly connected to an odd number of other cities, it is

called an odd city. If a city is directly connected to an even

number of other cities, it is called an even city. Then which of

(2) There are an odd number of odd cities

7. In the figure angle ABC=π/2 and AD =DE =EB

(1) II2 + III2 = I2 (2) II + III = I

(3) II2 + III2 > I2 (4) II + III<I

8. A rectangular sheet ABCD is folded in such a way that vertex

A meets vertex C, thereby forming a line PQ. Assuming AB= 3

and BC=4, find PQ. Note that AP = PC and AQ=QC.

From that point he moves along the diagonal and after covering

1/3rd portion of the diagonal, he goes to his left and after

sometime he stops, rotates 90° clockwise and moves straight.

After a few minutes he stops, rotates 1800 anticlockwise.

Towards which direction he is facing now?

(1) North-East (2) North-West

(3) South-East (4) South-West

9. A string of diameter 1mm is kept on a table in the shape of a

close flat spiral i.e., a spiral with no gap between the turns. The

area of the table occupied by the spiral is 1 m2. Then the length

of the string is

(1) 10 m (2) 102 m

(3) 103 m (4) 106 m

10. 25% of 25% of a quantity is x % of the quantity where x is

(1) 6.25% (2) 12.5%

(3) 25% (4) 50%

11. In sequence {an} every term is equal to the sum of all its

previous terms.

If ao=3, then

(1) 3 (2) 2

(3) 1 (4) e

12. In the figure below, angle ABC = π/2. I, II, III are the areas of

semicircles on the sides opposite angles B, A, and C,

respectively. Which of the following is always true?

13. What is the minimum number of days between one Friday

the 13th and the next Friday the 13th (Assume that the year is a

leap year).

(1) 28 (2) 56

(3) 91 (4) 84

14. Suppose a person A is at the North-East comer of a square

(see the figure below).

What is the ratio of the area of triangle ADC to that of triangle

15. Cucumber contains 99% water. Ramesh buys 100 kg of

cucumbers. After 30 day of storing, the cucumbers lose some

water. They now contain 98% water. What is the total weight

of cucumbers now?

(1) 99 Kg (2) 50 Kg

(3) 75 Kg (4) 21 Kg

16. In a museum there were old coins with their respective

(A) 1837 AD (B) 1907 AD (C) 1947 AD (D) 200 BC

17. A student observes the movement of four snails and plots

the graphs of distance moved as a function of time as given in

x2 + 4y2 + 9z2 = 14x + 28y+42z + 147

Where, x, y and z are real numbers. Then the value of x+2y+3z

(3) 21 (4) not unique

20. The map given below shows a meandering river following a

semi-circular path, along which two villages are located at A

and B, The distance between A and B along the east-west

What is the length of the river between A and B in the ground?

21. Out of the following hydrogen bonding schemes shown by

..., which one corresponds to the weakest hydrogen bond in a

given solvent condition?

(1) O-H …O< (2) N-H…O<

(3) O-H…N< (4) N-H…N<

22. Which peptide bond (s) marked as a, b, c, d and e will be

broken when the following oligopeptide is treated with trypsin

at pH 7.0?

Lys—(a) —Arg—(b) —Pro—(c) —Lys—(d) —Arg—(e) —Gly

(1) a, b, d, e (2) b, d, e

(3) d, e (4) d

(More appropriate is a, d and e, not in options)

23. During respiration, which of the following processes occur

only inside mitochondria and not cytoplasm?

(1) Glycolysis and the pentose-phosphate pathway.

(2) Glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.

(3) The citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation.

(4) Glycolysis and oxidative phosphorylation.

24. An enzyme catalyzed reaction was measured in the

presence and absence of an inhibitor for an uncompetitive


(1) only Km is increased

(2) both Km and Vmax are decreased

(3) only Vmax is decreased

(4) both Km and Vmax are not affected

25. KCI (100 mM) was entrapped inside large unilamellar

vesicles. A diffusion potential across the bilayer can be

generated by diluting with buffer containing

(1) 100 mM KCl and a protonophore.

(2) 100 mM NaCl and a protonophore.

(3) 100 mM KCl and a K+- specific ionophore.

(4) 100 mM NaCl and a K+- specific ionophore

26. Acetylcholine receptor is an archetype for:

(1) Ligand-gated ion channel

(2) ATPase dependent voltage-gated ion channel

(3) ATPase dependent Ca2+ -gated ion channel

(4) ATPase independent voltage gated ion channel

27. With reference to lac operon, what will be the phenotype of

an E. coli strain having a genotype I-

(1) Constitutive for both β-galactosidase and lac permease

(2) Inducible for both β-galactosidase and lac permease.

(3) Inducible for β-galactosidase and constitutive for lac


(4) Constitutive for β-galactosidase and inducible for lac


28. An organism that has peroxidase and superoxide dismutase

but lacks catalase is most likely an

(1) Aerotolerant anaerobe.

(2) Aerotolerant aerobe.

(3) Obligate anaerobe.

(4) Facultative anaerobe.

29. During DNA replication, events at the replication fork

require different types of enzymes having specialized functions


(1) DNA polymerase III. (2) DNA gyrase.

(3) DNA ligase. (4) DNA glycosylase.

30. Which of the following names is appropriate for the

sequence 5' –G/ANNAUG -3' in a mammalian mRNA?

(1) Shine-Dalgarno sequence

(2) Kozak sequence

(3) Internal ribosome entry sites

(4) Translation termination site

31. The specificity of tRNA recognition by a aminoacyl tRNA

synthetase that is intrinsic to the tRNA molecule lies on

32. Viral gene expression after T3 bacteriophage infection is

33. Which of the following factors is NOT true for the low levels

of immune response in Plasmodium infection?

(1) Different types of antigens are expressed at various stages

(2) Most of the phases in the life cycle of Plasmodium are

(3) Sporozoites are rapidly cleared from blood circulation.

(4) Plasmodium infection primarily destroys macrophages

34. Presence of the nuclear localization signal (NLS) in a

steroid receptor indicates that the receptor resides

(1) on the nuclear membrane (2) within the nucleus.

(3) on the cell membrane. (4) in the cytosol.

(Recent literature suggest that steroid receptors are

35. Which of the following is an intracellular anchor protein?

36. Out of the following matches of oncogenes with the

proteins that each specifies, which one is incorrect?

(2) erbB - epidermal growth factor receptor.

(3) ras- guanine-nucleotide binding protein with GTPase

(3) takes place in the ampulla of the oviduct.

38. With respect to development of any organism,

"autonomous specification" would result in which type of

39. The group of cells which generates the vascular tissues

including the pericycle in roots of higher plants are called

(3) ground meristem. (4) apical meristem.

40. If an embryo undergoes 13 cleavage divisions during

embryogenesis, then the size of the embryo compared to

42. A plant hormone that promotes the acquisition of

desiccation tolerance in developing seed is

(1) ABA (2) Ethylene

(3) IAA (4) GA3.

43. Change in Ca2+ concentration can initiate various responses

in plants. Which one of the following responses is NOT known

to be initiated by change in Ca2+ concentration?

(1) Closure of stomata.

(2) Reorientation of growth in pollen tubes.

(3) Thickening of cell walls in young tobacco seedlings in

response to wind.

(4) Lateral root formation.

44. Water can move through the soil-plant-atmosphere

continuum, only if water potential (ψw) along that path

(1) Decreases

(2) Increases

(3) Remains unchanged.

(4) Fluctuates rapidly in either direction.

45. Which one of the following is responsible for the ejection of

milk from mammary glands in mammals?

(1) Oxytocin (2) Prolactin

(3) Serotonin (4) Melatonin

46. A nerve fibre cannot be stimulated during the absolute

refractory period of a previous stimulation because

(1) Sodium permeability remains high.

(2) Sodium-potassium pump does not operate.

(3) Voltage-gated calcium channels remain closed

(4) Potassium conductance remains low.

47. The T-waves of ECG indicates

(1) Atrial depolarization.

(2) Ventricular depolarization

(3) Ventricular repolarization

(4) Atrial depolarization.

48. Blood group type A antigen is a complex oligosaccharide

which differs from H antigen present in type O individual by

the presence of terminal

(1) Glucose (2) Galactose

(3) N-acetyl galactosamine (4) Fucose

49. A cross was made between pure wild type males and brown

eyed curled winged females of D. melanogaster. The Fl females

were test crossed. The F2 progeny obtained was as follows: .

Wild type 200

Brown eyes, curled wings 150

Brown eyes, normal wings 30

Normal eyes, curled wings 20

The genetic distance (cM) between brown eye and curled wing

loci is:

(1) 12.5 (2) 50

(3) 150 (4) 25

50. The effect of nonsense mutation could be nullified by

reversion as well as suppression. Which of the following

processes will help to distinguish between the two kinds of


(1) Complementation (2) Transgenesis

(3) Test for allelism (4) Recombination

(Complementation test can also be used)

51. 2- Aminopurine induces mutation by

(1) Base pair change. (2) Frameshift

(3) Duplication (4) Deletion

41. The chlorosis (yellowing) symptom of iron deficiency is

(1) Sodium and Potassium (2) Sodium and Phosphorus.

(3) Calcium and Nitrogen (4) Potassium and Phosphorus.

52. In a transformation experiment, donor DNA from an E. coli

strain with the genotypes Z+Y+ was used to transform a strain

. The frequencies of transformed classes were:

What is the frequency (%) with which Y locus is co-

53. The ‘Tribe” refers to a taxonomic group recognized

(1) Genus and species (2) Family and genus

(3) Order and family (4) Class and order

54. A plant species has been descrobe for the fisrt time by a

author “x”. Later, the species has been transferrred to some

other genys by author “y”. Then the author citation for the new

55. The group which is no longer considered under the fungi is

(1) Ascomycetes (2) Basidiomycetes

(3) Chytridiomycetes (4) Oomycetes

56. Character similarity that can be misinterpreted as common

(1) symplesiomorphy (2) synapomorphy

(3) homology (4) homoplasy

57. The following table shows survival and fertility data for a

seasonally breeding species. Based on above data net

reproductive rate (Ro) of the species will be

Season Proportion Surviving Fertility

0 1.0 0

1 0.5 20

2 0.0 -

58. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of late

(2) Long seed dispersal distance, long seed viability

(3) Slow growth rate, long maximum life span.

(4) Low light saturation intensity, high efficiency at low light.

59. Which of the following organism do not possess the ability

(3) Eukaryotic organisms (4) Acidophilic organisms

60. Which of the following greenhouse gases has got highest

61. Which of the following evolutionary processes played an

important role in the evolution of immune system?

(1) Reproductive isolation (2) Adaptive radiation

(3) Neutral evolution (4) Co-evolution

62. In some species of new world monkeys, only one female

reproduces in a group. One or more younger females have

suppressed reproduction and asssit the reproductive female.

(1) Sexual selection (2) Group selection

(3) Kin selection (4) Reciprocal altruism

63. In bird species where both parents contribute equally to

parental care, generally

(1) males are larger than females

(2) females are more colorful than males

(3) females are larger than males

(4) both sexes are morphologically similar

64. The idea that an altruistic gene will be favored if r>C/B,

where r is the coefficient of relatedness, B is the benefit to the

recipient of the altriusm, and c is the cost incurred to the

donor, is known as

(1) red queen hypothesis

(2) handicap principle

(3) Hamilton rule

(4) Competitive exclusion principle

65. Usse of double haploids in plant breeding helps to

(1) reduce generation time while interogressing recessive


(2) reduce generation time while interogressing dominant


(3) develop somatic hybrids

(4) interogress transgenic traits

66. For sustainable expression of a trangene in the successive

generation of a cell line in culture, the ideal gene transfer can

be obtained using

(1) lentiviral vector

(2) adenoviral vector

(3) plasmid DNA containing the transgene

(4) only transgenic DNA

67. Desulphovibrio desulfuricans (A) and Pseudomonas species

(B) are involved in mercury bioremediation. Which of the

statement below is correct?

(1) A converts methyl mercury to mercuric ion, B converts

mercury to methyl mercury

(2) A converts mercury to methyl mercury, B converts mercury

to mercuric ions

(3) A converts mercury to methyl mercury, B converts

methyl mercury to mercuric ions

(4) A converts methyl mercury to mercuric ions, B converts

mercury to mercury ions

68. Optical density of a 400 base pair llong 1 ml DNA solution

was found to be 0.052. How many DNA molecules are present

in the solution?

[1 base pair=650 dalton, optical density of 1.0 D corresponds to

50 μg DNA/ml]

(1) 6.023 X 1012 (2) 6.023 X 1013

(3) 4.633 X 1018 (4) 5.2 X 1013

69. In which of the following techniques does molecular

fragmentation offer clues to the covalent chemical structures of


(1) MALDI-TOF MS spectrometry

(2) MALDI-TOF MS/MS spectrometry

(3) ESI-TOF MS mass spectrometry

(4) LC-couples ESI-TOF MS mass spectrometry

70. The movement of a single cell was required to be

continually monitored during development. This cell was

marked with a reporter gene. To visualize this movement one

would use

(1) phase contrast microscopy

(2) bright field microscopy

(3) florescence microscopy

(4) atomic force microscopy

(Considering that GFP was used as reporter gene)

71. The Gibbs free energy of binding of a ligand with a protein

is determined using calorimetric measurements at 25°C. The

value of ΔGo thus determined is 1.36 kcal/mole. The binding

constant for the ligand-protein association is:

bilayer of plasma membrane of red blood cells (RBCs). You

to be carried out to settle this issue.

72. A is converted to E by enzymes EA, EB, EC, ED. The Km(M)

values of the enzymes are 10-2, 10-4, 10-5 and 10-4, respectively.

If all the substrates and products are present at a concentration

of 10-4 M, and the enzymes have approximately the same Vmax

which phosphorylate themselves during pumping and involve

73. The molecular mass of a protein determined by gel

filtration is 120 kDa. When its mass is determined by SDS.PAOE

with and without β-mercaptoethanol, it is ooly 60 kDa. What is

the most probable explanation for these observations?

(1) Protein is a dimer in which two identical chains are cross-

(2) Protein is a monomer of molecular mass 60 kDa but it is

excluded from the gel matrix due to strong repulsion between

(3) Protein is most likely to be composed of two sub units

(4) Protein is a monomer but it is nicked into half its size by

74. Mouse IgG is left either intact (left lane A,B,C, D) or digested

with papain or pepsin or treated with β-mercaptoethanol (β-

ME) and run on non-reducing SDS-PAGE and stained with

Coomassie blue. In a separate experiment, papain-digested

products are immunoblotted with an anti-idiotypic monoclonal

antibody. Following four profiles are attributed to each of

transport of small molecules.

A. Photosystem II is located predominantly in the stacked

Which one of the following combinations of above statements

A. Each cell division does not have equal probability of plasmid

76. Phosphatidyl serine (PS) is mostly located in the inner

have to prove this fact about PS by an experiment. You are

provided with PS-specific lytic enzymes (PSE) and other

reagents needed. Identify the correct sequence of experiments

(1) RBCs  inside out vesicles PSE  Thin Layer

Chromotography (TLC)

(2) RBCs  right side out vesicles  TLC PSE

(3) RBCs  PSE  Inside out vesicles TLC

(4) RBCs  PSE  TLC  Inside out vesicles

77. ATP-driven pumps hydrolyze ATP to ADP and phosphate

and use the energy released to pump ions or solutes across a

membrane. There are many classes of these pumps and

representatives of each are found in all prokaryotic and

eukaryotic cells. Which of the following statements about these

pumps is NOT correct?

(1) P-type pumps are multipass transmembrane proteins

in ion transport.

(2) F-type pumps normally use the H+ gradient across the

membrane to drive the synthesis of ATP.

(3) V-type pumps normally use voltage gradient for

(4) ABC transporters primarily pump small molecules across

cell membrane.

78. Following are statements related to the organization of the

four major protein complexes of thylakoid membrane,

regions of the thylakoid membrane.

B. Photosystem I is found in the unstacked regions protruding

into stroma.

C. Cytochrome B6f complex is confined to stroma only.

D. ATP synthase is located in the unstacked regions protruding

into stroma.

is correct?

(1) A, B and C (2) A, B and D

(3) B, C and D (4), C, D and A

79. A bacterial population has a plasmid with copy number 'n'.

It was observed that on an average in one out of 2(n-1)

divisions, there was spontaneous plasmid curing. It was

inferred from the observation that:


B. There is no evidence for any mechanism of plasmid

segregation in the two daughter cells.

C. Plasmid distribution to daughter cells is random.

D. Each plasmid has an equal chance of being in either of the

Which one of the following possibilities is correct?

1. A (pepsin), B (papain), C (β-ME), D (papain, followed by

(2) A (papain), B (pepsin), C (papain, followed by anti-idiotype

(3) A (papain, followed by anti-idiotype immunoblot), S

(4) A (β-ME). B (papain), C ( pepsin), D (papain, followed by

75. The citric acid cycle in respiration yields:

two daughter cells.

Which of the combinations of above statements is true?

with radioactive thymidine. The medium was then replaced

with that containing unlabelled thymidine and the cells were

(1) A and B (2) B and D

(3) Only A (4) B, C and D

80. In a given experiment the cells were labeled for 30 minutes

grown for additional time. At different time points after

replacement of medium the fraction of mitotic cells were

analysed. Based on the results obtained, the above figure was

drawn which shows the percentage of mitotic cells that are

labeled as a function of time after brief incubation with

radioactive thymidine.

Had the DNA replication been conservative, what would have

been the pattern? (Answer 3)

Considering the above experiment, the following statements

A. Cells in the S-phase of the cell cycle during the 30 minute

B. It takes about 3 hours before the first labeled mitotic cells

C. The cells enter the second round of mitosis at t30 hours.

D. The total length of the cell cycle is about 27 hours with G1,

Which of the combination of above statements is correct?

81. Mutants of lac Y (Y-) gene of E. coli do not synthesize the

lactose permease protein. The following statements refer to the

A. No synthesis of β- galactosidase when Y' cells are induced

B. Synthesis of β- galactosidase when cells are induced with

C. No synthesis of β- galactosidase when cells are induced with

D. Synthesis of β- galactosidase when cells are induced with

E. The cells induced with IPTG cannot grow in the presence of

TONPG (TONPG is a compound, whose uptake is mediated by

lactose permease and cleaved by β- galactosidase to release a

F. Cells induced with IPTG Can grow in the presence of TONPG.

Which combination of the above statements is correct?

mutants under different experimental

82. The semi-conservative nature of DNA replication was

established by Meselson and Stahl in their classic experiment

with bacteria. They grew bacteria in N15-NH4Cl containing

medium, washed and then incubated in fresh medium with N14-

containing compounds and allowed to grow for three

generations. CsCl density gradient centrifugation of isolated

DNA established the nature of semiconservative DNA

replication. The pictorial representation below shows the

position of differentially labeled DNA in CsCl density gradient.

83. HeLa cell extract was used to study transcription of a gene

‘X’ having six introns. RNA Pol II complex containing all

associated proteins was isolated from actively transcribing

system and subjected to proteome analysis. Results showed the

presence of both splicing and capping enzymes in the complex.

When transcription elongation was inhibited by flavopiridol,

polymerase complex contained only capping enzymes. When

phosphorylation of the CTD domain of Pol II was inhibited by a

kinase inhibitor, the complex contained neither splicing nor

capping enzymes.

From these results, following conclusions were made:

A. Transcription of gene X is coupled to mRNA capping.

B. Transcription elongation is coupled to splicing.

C. Phosphorylation of CTD is required for the recruitment of

capping and splicing enzymes.

D. Both capping and splicing of mRNAs occurs simultaneously.

Identify the correct set of conclusions:

(1) A, B and C (2) B, C and D

(3) C, D and A (4) D, A and B

84. In bacteria, N-formyl methionine is the first amino acid to

be incorporated into a polypeptide chain. Accordingly, one

would think that all bacterial proteins have a formyl group at

their amino terminus and the first amino acid is methionine.

However, this is not the case, because of the following possible


A. Deformylase removes the formyl group only during or after

the synthesis of the polypeptides.

B. Aminopeptidase removes only the amino terminal


C. Aminopeptidase removes the amino terminal methionine as

well as one or two additional amino acids.

D. Deformylase removes the formyl group as well as amino

terminal methionine and adds one or two amino acids to it.

Choose the combination of comet answers from the following:

(1) B and C (2) A and B

(3) A and C (4) A and D

85. Bacteriophage λ is a temperate phage. Immediately after

infection, viral specific mRNAs for N and Cro proteins are

expressed followed by early mRNAs. At the commitment phase,

either lytic cycle starts with the expression of genes for head

tail, and lytic proteins or lysogenisation cycle begins with the

expression of repressor and integrase genes. During induction

of lysogens both INT and XIS proteins are needed along with

host factors. Out of the four processes below, some govern

Integration of viral genome and its excision?

A. Repression of transcription

B. Retroregulation

C. Rearrangement of viral genome

D. Repression of translation

Identify the correct set of combination:

(1) A and B (2) B and C

(3) C and D (4) D and A

86. In E. coli, recA gene is involved in recombination as well as

repair and dnaB gene is involved in unwinding of DNA double

strands during replication. Which of the following statement

B. E. coli with mutated dnaB gene does not survive.

C. Dna B after uncoiling DNA double strands, prevents further

D. Rec A gene is involved in SOS response and helps DNA

90. A particular type of cancer cell undergoes apoptosis by both

extrinsic and intrinsic pathways when treated with a

chemotherapeutic agent X. Caspase 8 and Caspase 9 are the

initiator caspases associated with extrinsic and intrinsic

pathways respectively. Now, if caspase 9 is silenced in the

cancer cell by shRNA transfection, what will be the best fit

graph for apoptosis scenario in the cancer cell when treated

with agent X? (Answer 1)

87. The challenges faced by aminoacyl tRNA synthetases in

selecting the correct amino acid is more daunting than its

recognition of the appropriate tRNA. In case of amino acids

with similar structures like valine and isoleucine, this challenge

A. catalytic pocket. B. editing pocket.

C. anticodon loop. D. acceptor arm.

88. p24 is an important core protein of HIV. This protein is

abundant during active replication of the virus. The serum of

an HIV patient was examined for the presence of p24 and

antibody against p24 for proper diagnosis of the infection

stage. Match the clinical observations in column A with the

Column A Column B

A. p24 is present in the serum. a. viral latency

b. progression of HIV from

latency to lytic stage

c. early stage of infection

(1) A-a, B-b, C-c (2) A-b, B-a, C-c

(3) A-c, B-a, C-b (4) A-c, B-b, C-a

89. Epidermal growth factor (EGF) is needed for growth of

almost all cells. EGF receptor is a transmembrane protein

having an extracellular ligand-binding domain, a

transmembrane domain and a cytosolic domain of protein

tyrosine kinase (PTK). Binding of EGF to the receptor activates

PTK resulting in activation of transcription factors through

intracellular transducers. In cell type A, much of the extra

cellular ligand-binding domain is deleted by proteases such

that cytosolic domain of PTK becomes constitutively active

whereas cell type B is having normal EGF receptor. What will

be the best-fit graph for the growth of the cultures of cell type

A and B in complete medium in presence (+) and absence (-) of

91. After successive surgery and chemotherapy, the tumor of a

breast cancer patient subsided. However after almost 5 years,

the tumor relapsed in a more aggressive manner and did not

respond to the conventional chemotherapy delivered earlier.

The following postulations were made.

A. Chemoresistant cells were persisting within the tumor even

after therapy.

B. A population of quiescent cells existed, which under

favourable conditions, transformed to new tumor cells.

C. High ABC (ATP-Binding Cassette) transporter expressing

cells persisted in the breast during chemotherapy.

D. Breast tumor cells which may have migrated to other

tissues, returned to the breast immediately after chemotherapy

was terminated.

Which of the above combination of statements is true?

(1) A and D (2) A, B and C

(3) Only B (4) B and D

92. Following are the experimental observations made on

treatment of B cells:

A. Anti-immunoglobulin (anti-Ig) antibody treatment results in

B cell apoptosis.

B. Anti-Ig plus CD40 ligand treatment results in B cell


C. Anti-Ig plus CD40 ligand plus IL-4 treatment results in B cell

proliferation and switching to IgG1.

D. Anti-Ig plus IL-4 treatment results in less B cell proliferation

but switching to IgE.

From the above observation, which one of the following is the

correct interpretation for the role of CD40 in B cell function?

(1) Induce death of B cells.

(2) Rescue B cells from death and Ig class switch to IgG1.

(3) Inducing Ig class switch to IgE.

(4) Induce Ig class switching to both IgG1 and IgE and inhibit B

cell proliferation.

93. A potentially valuable therapeutic approach for killing

tumor cells without affecting normal cells is the use of

immunotoxins. Immunotoxins constitute monoclonal

antibodies against tumor cells conjugated to lethal toxins.

Which of the following molecular approaches do you think is

NOT appropriate for generating tumor cell-specific

immunotoxin that will not kill normal cells?

(1) Cell surface receptor binding polypeptide chain of toxin

molecule should he replaced by monoclonal antibodies against

(2) Constant region Fc domain of tumor cell specific

monoclonal antibody should be replaced by ligation of toxins.

(3) Variable region F(ab)2, domain of tumor cell-specific

monoclonal antibody should be replaced by ligation of

(4) Inhibitor polypeptide chain of toxin should be conjugated

to F(ab)2, domain of tumor cell specific monoclonal antibody.

94. Flowers represent a complex array of functionally

specialized structures that differ substantially from the

vegetative plant body in form and cell types. Following are

statements made regarding floral meristems.

A. Floral meristems can usually be distinguished from

B. The increase in the size of the meristem is largely a result of

increased rate of cell division in central cells.

C. The increase in the size of the meristem is due to larger size

of the cells, which in turn results from rapid cell expansion

D. A network of genes control floral morphogenesis in plants.

Which combination of the above statements is true?

97. In tadpoles, if the tail is amputated it can regenerate.

However, if the tail is amputated and then exposed to retinoic

acid, it develops limbs instead of regenerating the tail. This

could be due to the following reasons:

A. Retinoic acid is a morphogen and induces genes responsible

for limb formation.

B. Retinoic acid raises the positional values in that region for

limb development to take place.

C. This is a random phenomenon and is not well understood.

D. Retinoic acid possibly acts as a mutagen and the phenotype

observed is a result of several mutations.

Which combination of the above statements is true?

(1) A and B (2) C and D

(3) B and D (4) B and C

98. In sea urchins, a group of cells at the vegetal pole become

specified as the large micromere cells. These cells are

determined to become skeletogenic mesenchyme cells that will

leave the blastula epithelium to ingress into the blastocoel. This

specification is controlled by the expression of Pmar1 which is

a repressor of HesC. HesC represses the genes encoding

transcription factors activating skeleton forming genes. The

gene regulatory network is given below.

95. Three embryos, X (wild type), Y (mutant for bicoid) and Z

(mutant for nanos) were injected with bicold mRNA in their

posterior pole at early cleavage stage. What would be the

(1) Embryo X will develop head on both anterior and posterior

side, while embryos Y and Z will develop head on posterior

(2) Embryos X and Z will develop head on both anterior

and posterior side, while embryo Y will develop head on

(3) Embryos X, Y and Z will develop head on both anterior as

(4) Embryo X will develop head on anterior side, embryo Y will

develop no head, while embryo Z will develop head on anterior

96. In C. elegans during embryogenesis, an anchor cell and 6

hypodermal vulval precursor cells (VPCs) get involved in

forming the vulva. If 3 of the hypodermal VPCs are killed by a

laser beam, a normal vulva is still formed. This could be due to

A. Six hypodermal VPCs form equivalence group of cells, out of

which only 3 participate in vulva formation and 3 cells remain

B. When 3 hypodermal VPCs are killed, the 3 neighboring

hypodermal non- VPCs get freshly recruited.

C. Anchor cell functions as an inducer which can induce

epithelial cells of the gonad to gel recruited to compensate for

D. Anchor cell acts as an inducer which can spatially induce

Which combination of the above statements is correct?

Below, column I lists the experiments carried with

mRNA/antisense RNA of different genes injected into single-
celled sea urchin embryo while column II lists the

developmental outcomes: Match the following:

Column I (Injection of) Column II (developmental

A. mRNA of Pmar1 I. All cells will start ingressing

B. mRNA of HesC 2. Skeleton mesenchyme will

C. Antisense of Pmar1

D. Antisense of HesC

Which of the following combinations is correct?

(1) A-2, B-1, C-1, D-2 (2) A-1, B-1, C-2, D-2

(3) A-1, B-2, C-2, D-1 (4) A-2, B-2, C-2, D-2

99. Which of the following cellular communications shown

below will override the process of normal development and

lead to cancer?

(1) B and C (2) A and C

(3) A and D (4) B and D

100. In plants, the energy of sunlight is first absorbed by the

pigments present in their leaf cells followed by the fixation of

carbon through photosynthesis. Consider the following

(A) Chlorophylls a and b are abundant in green plants.

(B) Chlorophylls c and d are found in some protists and

(C) Out of different types of bacteriochlorophyll, type a is the

(D) Out of different types of bacteriochlorophyll, type b is the

Which one of the following combination of above statements is

Which one of the following combinations is correct regarding

starch and sucrose synthesis during day time?

(1) A and B (2) B and C

(3) C and D (4) D and A

101. Nitrate reductase is an important enzyme for nitrate

assimilation. Given below are some statements on nitrate

(A) Nitrate reductase of higher plants is composed of two

(B) One subunit of nitrate reductase contains three prosthetic

(C) One of the prosthetic groups attached to both subunits is

(D) One of the prosthetic groups complexed with pterin is

Which one of the following combination of statements on

nitrate reductase mentioned above is correct?

102. A farmer growing a particular variety of grape plants in

(C) Development of fungal infection as the pedicels are small in

size due to which moisture is retained in the bunches of grapes.

Experts suggested spraying gibberellic acid during the fruit

development. This treatment would help in getting rid of

(1) A, B and C (2) only A and B

(3) only A and C (4) only B and C

103. Light is perceived by various photoreceptors in plants.

The photoreceptors predominantly work at specific

wavelengths of light. Some of the following statements are

related to the functions of plant photoreceptors.

(A) Phytochrome A predominantly perceives the red and far-

(B) Phytochrome B predominantly perceives red light.

(C) Cryptochromes regulate plant development.

(D) Phototropins are involved in blue light perception and

Which one of the following combinations based on above

(A) Triose phosphate is utilized for the synthesis of both starch

(B) Triose phosphate is translocated to cytosol from

(C) Triose phosphate is confined to chloroplast and is utilized

(D) Triose phosphate is translocated from cytosol to

105. Shown above, is a graph representing the growth of

different plant species subjected to salinity relative to that of

unsalinized control. Which of the following statements is NOT


(1) Plants In group IA are extreme halophytes while very salt

sensitive species will be part of group III.

(2) Plants in group IA are very salt sensitive and extreme

halophytes will be part of group III.

(3) Halophytes, which can tolerate salt but their growth is

retarded will be of part of group IB.

(4) Non-halophytes, which are salt tolerant but lacks salt

glands will be a part of group II.

106. An experimentalist stimulates a nerve fibre in the middle

of an axon and records the following observations. Which one

of the observation is correct?

(1) Nerve impulse is travelling in a direction towards cell body.

(2) Nerve impulse is travelling in a direction towards


(3) Nerve impulses are travelling in both the diretions

opposite to each other.

(4) Nerve impulse is not moving in either direction.

107. Desert animals have longer loop of Henle compared to

that of humans. It may be due to the following reasons:

A. Long loop of Henle is associated with greater amount of

vasopressin secretion.

B. In long loop of Henle, the counter-current exchanger is more


C. Long loop of Henle conserves more water.

D. Long loop of Henle stimulates production of angiotensin II.

Which of the above reason(s) is/are correct?

(1) A and B (2) B and C

(3) C and D (4) only D

108. A boy eats a large serving of cheese having high amount of

sodium. He hardly drinks any fluid. Inspite of this, the water

and electrolyte balance was maintained. Which one of the

following explanation is correct?

(1) His aldosterone was decreased and alcohol

dehydrogenase (ADH) was increased.

(2) His aldosterone was increased and ADH was decreased.

(3) There was no change in either of the hormones.

(4) His sympathoadrenal system was stimulated.

109. The blood volume decreased when a mammal was bled

rapidly. However, the cardiovascular changes resulting from

hemorrhage could be minimized by the following

compensatory mechanisms:

A. Increased cerebral blood flow,

B. Reduction of baroreceptor activity and stimulation of


C. Reabsorption of tissue fluid in blood.

D. Increased release of enkephalins and beta-endorphins.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(1) A and B (2) B and C

(3) C and D (4) only D

110. The stomach of a person was partially removed during

surgery of a gastric tumour. Despite taking a balanced diet, the

person developed anemia. Following possible explanations

A, Lower gastric secretion inhibits folic acid absorption

B. Protein digestion was disturbed in partial gastrectomy

C. Lower HCl secretion from stomach reduced iron absorption

D. Lower secretion of intrinsic protein factor from stomach

Which of the above explanations were correct?

113. The following pedigree represents inheritance of a trait in

an extended family:

111. The RFLP pattern observed for two pure parental lines

(P1 and P2) and their F1 progeny is represented below.

Further, the PI plant had red flowers while the P2 had white

flowers. The F1 progeny was backcrossed to P2. The result

obtained, showing the number of progeny with red and white

flowers and their RFLP patterns is also represented below.

What is the probable mode of inheritance and which

individuals conclusively demonstrate this mode of inheritance?

(1) Autosomal recessive, III-2, 3 and IV- 1, 2 conclusively

demonstrate the mode of inheritance.

(2) Autosomal recessive, I-1,2 and II-2 conclusively

demonstrate the mode of inheritance.

(3) Autosomal dominant, III- 2, 3 and IV- 1, 2 conclusively

demonstrate the mode of inheritance.

(4) X-linked recessive, II- 3, 4 and 5 conclusively demonstrate

the mode of inheritance.

114. Following is the diagram of a paracentric inversion

heterozygote ABCDEFG/ABFEDCG involved in recombination

during meiosis I:

Which one of the following conclusions made is correct?

(1) The DNA marker and the gene for the flower colour are

(2) The marker and the gene for the flower colour are 5cM

(3) The marker and the phenotype are independently

(4) The marker and the gene for the colour segregate from one

112. Wild type T4 bacteriophage can grow on B and K strains of

E. coli forming small plaques. rll mutants of T4 bacteriophage

cannot grow on E. coli strain K (non-permissive host), but form

large plaques on E. coli strain B (permissive host). The

following two experiments were carried out:

Experiment I: E. coli K cells were simultaneously infected with

Experiment II: E. coli B cells were simultaneously infected

with the same mutants as above. T4 phages were isolated from

the resulting plaques and used to infect E. coli K cells. Few

plaques with wild type morphology were formed.

Which one is the correct conclusion made regarding the rII

(experiment I) and there is no recombination between them

(experiment I) and they recombined (experiment II).

(experiment II) and they recombined (experiment I).

(experiment I) and they did not recombine (experiment II).

and b-). Several plaques with wild type

from the above experiments?

belong to two different cistrons

belong to two different cistrons

belong to two different cistrons

belong to the same cistron

The consequence of this recombination will be the formation of

A. A dicentric and an acentric chromosome in meiosis I as the

chiasmata gets terminated.

B. No dicentric or acentric chromosome but appearance of

deletion and duplication in both the chromosomes.

C. All non-viable gametes.

D. Non-viable gametes from crossover products.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) A and B (2) A and C

(3) A and D (4) B and C

115. An E. coli strain has metB1 (90 min) and leuA5 (2 min)

mutations. It also has strA7 (73 min) mutation and Tn5

transposon which confers streptomycin and kanamycin

resistance, respectively, inserted in its chromosome. The

mutant strain was crossed with an Hfr strain that is

streptomycin sensitive and has a hisG2 mutation (44 min) that

makes it require histidine. After incubation for 100 min, the

cells were plated on minimal plate supplemented with leucine,

histidine and streptomycin to select the metB marker. After

purifying 100 of the Met+ transconjugants, one finds that 15 are

His+, 2 are Leu+ and 12 are kanamycin sensitive. The unselected

markers are

A. metB1 and leuA5 mutation.

B. leuA5 and Tn5 insertion mutation.

Which of the above statement is correct and what is the

position of transposon insertion?

(1) A and before 73 min (2) B and before 44 min

(3) B and before 73 min (4) A and before 44 min

116. A chemist synthesized three new chemical compounds,

M1, M2 and M3. The compounds were tested for their

mutagenic potential and were found to be highly mutagenic.

Tests were made to characterize the nature of mutations by

allowing the reversion with other mutagens. The following





(1) A - Rickettsia; B - Brucella; C - Wolbachia; D

Nitrobacter; E - Agrobacterium; F - Acetobacter; G -

Rhizobium; H - Azospirillum

(2) A - Rickettsia; B - Wolbachia; C - Brucella; D - Nttrobacter;

E - Acetobacter; F – Agrabacterium; G -Rhizobium; H-


(3) A - Rickettsia; B - Brucella; C- Wolbachia; D-Nitrobacter;

E - Agrobacterium; F -Acetobacter; G- Azospirillum; H -


(4) A- Rickettsia; B - Brucella; C - Wolbachia; D - Nilrobacter;

E - Acetobacter; F - Agrobacterium; G- Azospirillum; H-

120. Which of the following phylogenetic trees appropriately

uses principle of parsimony? (Answer 2)




Which one of the following conclusions drawn regarding the

nature of mutations by the compounds is correct?

(1) M1- transversion, M2 - insertion, M3 - deletion

(2) M1- transition, M2- transversion, M3 - insertion

(3) M1 - insertion, M2 - transition, M3 - transversion

(4) M1 - transversion, M2 - transition, M3 – insertion

117. Four Cnidarians with the following characteristics were

A. Asexual polyps and sexual medusae; solitary or colonial;

B. Polyp stage reduced or absent, medusae with velum;

C. Polyp stage reduced, bell shaped medusae; solitary; all

D. All polyps, no medusae; solitary or colonial; all marine.

They can be identified to their respective classes:

(1) A - Scyphozoa B - Anthozoa C - Cubozoa D - Hydrozoa

(2) A - Hydrozoa B - Scyphozoa C - Cubozoa D- Anthozoa

(3) A- Anthozoa B - Cubozoa C- Hydrozoa D - Scyphozoa

(4) A. Cubozoa B - Scyphozoa C - Anthozoa D - Hydrozoa

118. The following table shows the summary of characters

between two taxa based on presence (1) and absence (0) data

121. Identify the characters shown in the diagram depicting

phylogenetic relationships among major groups of ferns and

fern allies.

Which of the following represents Jaccard's coefficient and

119. Identify the proteobacteria based on the key given below:

i. Cause disease in humans (ii)

i. Do not cause disease in humans (iii)

ii. An obligate intracellular parasite (A)

ii. Not all obligate intracellular parasite (B)

iii. Live in insects (C)

iii. Do not live in insecls (iv)

iv. Chemoautotrophic (D)

iv. Not Chemoautotrophic (v)

v. Plant pathogen (E)

v. Not a plant pathogen (vi)

vi. Fix nitrogen (vii)

vi. Do not fix nitrogen (F)

vii. Associated with legumes (G)

vii. Not associated with legumes (H)

(1) a) Roots absent, b) Sporangiophores, c) Vertical,

interrupted annulus, d) Heterospory, e) Leaves scale

like, f) Elaters.

(2) a) Roots absent, b) Leaves scale like, c)

Sporangiophores, d) Elaters, e) Heteroapory, f) Vertical,

interrupted annulus

(3) a) Leaves scale like, b) Sporangiophores, c) Elaters, d)

Heterospory, e) Roots absent, f) Vertical, interrupted annulus.

(4) a) Heterospory, b) Roots absent, c) Elaters, d)

Sporangiophores, e) Leaves scale like, t) Vertical, interrupted


122. Associate the forest/vegetation type with the plants:

a. Grass land

b. Subalpine forest

c. Shola forest

d. Subtropical pine forest

e. Tropical thorn forest

f. Tropical dry deciduous forest

g. Tropical semievergreen forest

h. Tropical wet evergreen forest

(1) a - llex, b - Dichanthium, c - Abies, d - Pinus, e - Acacia. f -

Anogeissus g - Cinnamomum. h - Dipterocarpus

(2) a . Dichanthium, b . Abies, c . Ilex, d - Pinus, e - Acacia. f.

Anogeissus g - Cinnamomum, h - Dipterocarpus

(3) a - Dichanthium, b - Abies, c - llex, d - Pinus, e -

Dipterocarpus. f - Cinnamomum, g - Acacia, h - Anogeissus

(4) a - Anogeissus, b. Dichanthium, c - llex, d - Pinus, e - Acacia, f

- Abies, g - Cinnamomum, h – Dipterocarpus

123. Possible explanations for the age related decline in

A. As trees grow larger with age, they have more tissues that

respire and loose energy and proportionately less leaf area to

B. Nutrient limitation by nitrogen due to reduced rate of woody

C. As trees become larger, water transport to the top canopy

leaves becomes limited because of increased hydraulic

resistance. This results in reduced stomatal conductance and

129. If the number of new species evolving is directly

proportional to the number of existing species and the

probability of extinction of any species is inversely

proportional to the number of existing species, the number of

species present at a time during evolution will follow a curve

given by: (Answer 3)

(3) only A and C (4) only B and C

124. Species characteristics that make them more prone to

Which of the following is the correct combination?

130. If the relationship between life time reproductive success

and body size for males and females of a species as shown in

figure below:

125. Based on the information given in the table below, which

Biographic zone Plant Animal

A1 Mediterranean B1 Rhododendron C1 Gibbon

A2 Indo-Chinese B2 Dipterocarpus C2 Jungle Fowl

A3 Indo-Malayan B3 Euphorbia C3 Takin

A4 Peninsular India B4 Deodar C4 Ibex

126. In a census for a lake fish, 10 individuals were marked and

released. In second sampling after a few days 15 individuals

were caught, of which 5 individuals were found marked. The

estimated population of the fish in the lake will be

The species is most likely to evolve

(1) Sexual dimorphism (2) Asexual reproduction

(3) Polyandry (4) Obligate monogamy

131. Following tree represents phylogenetic relationships

among species of a moth family. Circles represent species

having eye spots on the wings. Other species do not have eye


127. Identify the pollinators for the flowers with following

A. Flowers dull colored, located away from foliage, floral parts

B. Flowers bright red, crowded, turgid, neclar watery and

C Flowers white with pleasant odor, corolla tube long, night

128. Which of the following combinations is good for setting up

The following interferences were made by different


A. Eye spots were present in the ancestors and some species

B. Eye spots were not present in the ancestors.

C. Eye spots were lost more than once in evolution of the

D. Eye spots were gained only once while evolving from

Which of the interferences are correct?

(1) A and B (2) C and D

(3) A and C (4) B and D

lost them.


ancestors without them.

132. Wolbachia are obligate intracellular bacteria, many

different strains of which are abundantly present in insects.

They induce mating incompatibility in host, i.e. males infected

with one strain can only fertilize females infected with the

same strain. No other pathological effects are observed in host.

A possible evolutionary consequence of this phenomenon

(2) Termination of sexual reproduction in many insect species.

(4) Reproductive isolation leading to rapid speciation in

133. Twenty small populations of a species, each polymorphic

for a given locus (T, t) were bred in captivity. In 10 of them the

population size was kept constant by random removal of

individuals, while other 10 were allowed to increase their

population size. After several generations it was observed that

in 7 of the size restricted populations only T was present, in the

remaining 3 only t was observed. The experiment illustrates

(1) Genetic drift which is more likely in large populations.

(2) Genetic drift which is more likely in small populations

134. Some important events in the history of life on Earth are

A. First vertebrates (jawless fishes); first plants.

B. Forest of ferns and conifers; amphibians arise; insects

C. Conifers dominant; dinosaurs arise; insects radiate.

D. Flowering plants appear; climax of dinosaurs followed by

E. Radiation of flowering plants, most modern mammalian

Match the above with the geological time periods and choose

(1) A- Silurian; B- Permian; C- Triassic; D- Jurassic; E-

(2) A- Ordovician; B- Carboniferous; C- Triassic; D-

(3) A- Cambrian; B- Ordovician; C- Silurian; D- Devonian; E-

(4) A- Devonian; B- Permian; C- Triassic; D- Cretaceous; E-

135. Microbes produce either primary or secondary

metabolites during fermentation. A metabolite production

Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) A and B (2) C and D

(3) A and C (4) B and D

136. During transgenesis, the location of the genes and their

number integrated into the genome of the transgenic animal

are random. It is often necessary to determine the copy

number of genes and their tissue-specific transcription. The

following are the possible methods used for the determination.

A. Polymerase Chain Reaction(PCR)

B. Southern blot hybridization

C. Reverse Transcriptase PCR

D. Western blot

Choose the correct set of combinations.

(1) A and B (2) B and C

(3) B and D (4) A and D

137. Agrobacterium tumefaciens, also known as natural genetic

engineers, causes crown-gall disease in plants. However, when

the same bacteria are used to raise transgenic plants with

improved agronomic traits, no such tumor (disease) is

observed. This is due to:

A. Vir D2 gene is mutated in Ti plasmid.

B. Disarmed Ti plasmid is generally used.

C. Heat-shock during transformation destroys virulence.

D. Oncogenes have been removed.

Which one of the following combination of above statements is


(1) A and C (2) A and D

(3) B and C (4) B and D

138. Locus control region (LCR) lies far upstream from the

gene cluster and is required for the appropriate expression of

each gene in cluster. LCR regulates expression of globin genes

in the cluster through the following ways.

A. LCR interacts with promoters of individual genes by DNA

looping through DNA-binding proteins.

B. The LCR-bound proteins attract chromatin-remodeling

complexes including histone-modifying enzymes and

components of the transcription machinery.

C. LCR acts as an enhancer for global regulation of gene cluster

and does not regulate individual genes.

D. LCR participates in covering inactive chromatin to active

chromatin around the gene cluster.

Choose the correct set of combinations.

(1) A and B (2) A and C

(3) B and C (4) B and D

139. A student wrote following statements regarding

comparison of Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism

(RFLP), Random Amplified Polymorphic DNA (RAPD),

Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism (AFLP) and Simple

Sequence Repeats (SSRs) techniques used for generating

molecular markers in plants:

A. All these techniques can be used for fingerprinting.

B. Detection of allelic variation can be achieved only by RFLP

and SSRs.

C. Use of radioisotopes is required in RFLP and RAPD only.

D. Polymerase chain reaction is required for all the techniques.

Which one of the following combination of above statements is


(1) A and B (2) B and C

(3) C and D (4) D and A

The following statements refer to the above figure:

A. A primary metabolite has a production curve that lags

B. A primary metabolite is produced after the Trophophase

C. A secondary metabolite is produced mainly during

D. The curve shows the production of Penicillin from mold.

140. In order to clone an eukaryotic gene in pBR322 plasmid

vector, the desired DNA fragment was produced by PstI

cleavage and incubated with PstI digested pRR322 (PstI

cleavage site lies within the ampicillin resistant gene) and

ligated. Mixtures of ligated cells were used to transform E. coli

and plasmid containing bacteria were selected by their growth

in tetracycline containing medium. Which type of plasmid/s

(1) Circular pBR322 plasmid containing the target gene and

(2) Circular pBR322 plasmid containing the target gene and

resistant to tetracycline only and re-circularized pBR322

plasmid resistant to both ampicillin and tetracycline.

(3) Circular pBR322 plasmid containing the target gene

and resistant to only tetracycline, re-circularized pBR322

resistant to both ampicillin and tetracycline and

concatemerised pBR322 resistant to both ampicillin and

(4) Circular pBR322 plasmid containing the target gene and

resistant to both ampicillin and tetracycline.

141. During apoptosis, phosphatidyl serine (PS) usually

present in the inner leaflet of the plasma membrane flips to the

outer membrane. Annexin V is a protein that binds to PS, Using

this as a tool, we identifiy the apoptic cells from necrotic and

normal cell populations by FACS using FITC-tagged Annexin V.

Propidium iodide (PI) is used to stain the nucleus which

generally identifies necrotic and late apoptic cells. In which

area of the plot you should get early apoptic cells by FACS

143. A fluorophore when transferred from solvent A to solvent

B results in an increase in the number of vibrational states in

the ground state without any change in the mean energies of

either the ground or excited state. What would be the change

seen in the fluorophore’s emission spectrum?

(1) An increase in emission intensity.

(2) An increase in emission bandwidth.

(3) An increase in emission wavelength.

(4) A decrease in emission wavelength.

144. You wish to localise a given gene product at subcellular

levels following immunofluoroscence staining. Routine

microscopy could not resolve whether the gene product is

localized inside the nucleus or on the nuclear membrane.

Which of the following will resolve this unambiguously?

A. Sectioning of cell followed by phase contrast microscopy.

B. A simulation of 3D picture following confocal microscopy.

C. Optical sectioning and observing each section.

D. Freeze fracturing followed by Scanning Electron Microscopy.

(1) A and B (2) B and C

(3) C and D (4) A and C

145. The Triver-Willard hypothesis states that the

physiological state of a female can bias the sex ratio of

offspring. In an experiment in the bird species a group of

females were fed a diet 30% lower in calories than the control

females. After allowing both the groups to mate and breed

freely, the offspring of control 1 group were 22 males and 18

females. The diet restricted females laid a total of 40 eggs.

What should be the minimum deviation from the control to

conclude that they have significantly female biased offspring

sex ratio. (Chi sq [0.05] df =1 is 3.84)

(1) 18 male 22 female

(2) 20 male 20 female

(3) 15 male 25 female

(4) 10 male 30 female

(3) Quadrant III (4) Quadrant IV

142. The muscle tone was increased after electrolytic lesion of

the caudate nucleus in a cat. The muscle tone decreased within

seven days. The following explanations were given by the

A. The functional recovery was due to plastic changes of

B. The brain tissue surrounding the lesioned area was non-
functional due to circulatory insufficiency immediately after

surgery which led to the greater functional loss.

C. The circulatory status in surrounding tissue recovered with

time resulting in partial functional recovery.

D. The degenerating nerve fibres were regenerated which
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